The most said argument regarding divorce is – “We are no longer under the Law!”

We have a two fold question here: One, why should be subject ourselves to that which we died too? And two, we do not practice “bride price” so the woman should have all the divorce rights as the man?

#1 is 1 John 3:4 Everyone who practices sin also practices lawlessness; and sin is lawlessness. So, there is the morality of Deut. 24:1 in the Law of Moses which Jesus morally calls a remarriage after an unlawful divorce, adultery. Adultery is adultery, and no excuse can get around having a need to commit this great sin.

#2 is why do not practice “bride price” but this was a symbol of what was happening “behind” the curtain. The man leaves his mother and father (not the girl) and he goes to her father and requests his daughter’s hand in marriage. This request is because Scripture says that the girl is still under her father’s complete authority until marriage (Numbers 30:2-16, Ex. 22:16-17 etc…). We know this changes for the Greek word in Romans 7:2 and 1 Cor. 7:39 says the woman is “under her husband”. The young girl never has her own authority (unless widow or divorced Num. 30:9) and it is obviously transferred from one man (father) to the other (groom) upon marriage.

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